Number of bones - 206
Number of muscles - 639
Number of kidneys - 2
Number of milk teeth - 20
Number of ribs - 24 (12 pairs)
Number of chambers in the heart - 4
Largest artery - Aorta
Normal Blood pressure - 120 /80 mm Hg
pH of blood - 7.4
Number of vertebrae in the spine - 33 (C-7,T-12,L-5,S-5,Co-4)
Number of vertebrae in the Neck - 7 (C-7)
No of bones in middle Ear - 6 (2*Malleus, Incus and Stapes)
Number of bones in Face - 14
Number of bones in Skull - 22
Number of bones in each human ear - 3
Number of muscles in the human arm - 72
Largest organ - Skin
Largest gland - Liver
Smallest cell - Blood cell
Biggest cell - Egg cell (ovum)
Smallest bone - Stapes
First transplanted organ - Heart
Average length of small intestine - 7 m
Average length of large intestine - 1.5 m
Average weight of new born baby - 2.6 kg.
Pulse rate in one minute - 72 times
Body Temperature - 36.9o C (98.4o F)
Average blood volume - 4 - 5 liters
Average life of RBC - 120 days
Pregnancy period - 280 days
Number of bones in human foot - 33
Number of bones in each wrist - 8
Number of bones in hand - 27
Largest endocrine gland - Thyroid
Largest lymphatic organ - Spleen
Largest cell - Nerve cell
Largest part of brain - Cerebrum
Largest & strongest bone - Femur
Smallest muscle - Stapedius (Middle ear )
Number of chromosomes in human cell - 46 (23
pairs)
Number of bones in New born body - 300
Largest muscle - Buttock (Gluteus Maximus)
Monday, April 9, 2018
NEET UG - ONE LINERS
Wednesday, July 26, 2017
Ideal Contraceptive
Hello guys! Through this post I am going to explain the concept of ideal Contraceptive.
What are the properties of an Ideal Contraceptive?
A. It should be effective in preventing conception.
B. It should be reliable.
C. It should protect against STDs.
D. It should be free from allergic reactions to the genitalia.
E. It should be easily available.
F. It should be cheaper.
G. It must not interfere with the sexual pleasure of the couple.
H. It should give privacy.
I. It should require minimal medical intervention for its application.
J. It should be reversible.
NO SUCH IDEAL CONTRACEPTIVE HAS BEEN MADE SO FAR.
Although use of male condom provides the above properties to some extent. Hence Male Condom is considered as the most ideal Contraceptive method.
Effectiveness of Contraceptive means only its ability to reduce the chances of Conception /Pregnancy. The permanent surgical methods like Tubectomy and Vasectomy has least chances of conception, hence most effective Contraceptive method is Surgical methods. Although this method has poor reversibility.
Points to be noted -
- Use of a single condom twice is contraindicated.
- Use of male and female condoms together is contraindicated.
- Use of oil based lubricant with condoms is contraindicated.
- Proper techniques of insertion, removal and disposal of condoms is the weakest link in reducing the effectiveness of Condoms.
That's all!
MD Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Thursday, July 20, 2017
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocyte =Platelets
Normal Count of platelets = 1.5-3 lakhs /mm3
If the platelet count is reduced, we call it thrombocytopenia. If the platelet count is increased we call it thrombocytosis.
One common cause of thrombocytopenia is DENGUE.
Features of thrombocytopenia -
1. Increased bleeding tendency
2. Haemorrhages
3. Epistaxis
4. Petechiae
5. Purpura
In aplastic anemia - we have anemia + thrombocytopenia + leukocytopenia.
I hope this concept helps you all.
Thank you
-Md Mobarak Hussain (Maahii)
Wednesday, February 1, 2017
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
Heredity is the transfer of character from parents to their offsprings. These hereditary characters are present on the chromosomes in the form of genes. These gene combinations express characters which may be more similar to one of its two parents. The differences in characters of offspring mainly depend upon unique process of crossing over that occurs during meiosis. This is one of the main reasons of producing recombination.
Gregor Johann Mendel was born in 1822 in Heinzendorf, which was a part of Czechoslovakia. He began his genetic experiments on garden pea in 1856 in the garden at the monastery.
Selection of pea plant:-
The main reasons for adopting garden pea (Pisum sativum) for experiments by Mendel were–
Pea has many distinct contrasting characters.
Life span of pea plant is short.
Flowers show self pollination, reproductive whorls being enclosed by corolla.
It is easy to artificially cross pollinate the pea flowers. The hybrids thus produced were fertile. Working method: Mendel’s success was also due to his meticulous planning and method of work
He studied only one character at a time.
He used all available techniques to avoid cross pollination by undesirable pollen grains.
He applied mathematics and statistics to analyse the results obtained by him.
Mendel’s work and results:-
The results obtained by Mendel were studied and on their basis he proposed certain laws known as “Laws of heredity”.
These laws are discussed below:
1) Law of dominance: This law states that when two contrasting genes for a character come together in an organism, only one is expressed externally and shows visible effect. It is called dominant and the other gene of the pair which does not express and remains hidden is called recessive.
2) Law of segregation or Purity of gametes: This law states that both parental alleles (recessive and dominant) separate and are expressed phenotypically in F2 generation. When F2 generation was produced by allowing F1 hybrid to self pollinate, to find out segregation or separation it was observed that both dominant and recessive plants appeared in 3:1 ratio.
3) Law of Independent assortment: The law of independent assortment states that inheritance of two or more genes when occur at one time, their distribution in the gametes and in the progeny of subsequent generations is independent of each other.
To prove this, he did a dihybrid cross. He crossed homozygous dominant smooth and yellow seeded (YYRR) with homozygous recessive wrinkled and green seeded (yyrr) plants. The F1 hybrid was self pollinated and F2 generation was obtained with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 and genotypic ratio of 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1.
Test Cross: A cross between F1 hybrid (Aa) and its homozygous recessive parent (aa) is called Test Cross. This cross is called test cross because it helps to find out whether the given dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.
Incomplete dominance: When neither of the alleles of a character is completely dominant over the other and the F1 hybrid is intermediate between the two parents, the phenomenon is called incomplete dominance. The most common example of incomplete dominance is that of flower colour in 4’O clock plant. Homozygous red (RR) flowered variety was crossed with white (rr) flowered variety. F1 offspring had pink flowers (Rr). This is called incomplete dominance. Incomplete dominance is alsoknownto occur in snapdragon. The phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio in F2 generation in case of incomplete dominance is 1:2:1.
Multiple Allelism / Codominance: When a gene exists in more than two allelic forms, it shows the phenomenon of multiple allelism. A well known example is the inheritance of A, B and O blood groups in human being. The gene for blood group occurs in three allelic forms IA, IB and i. Any person carries two of these alleles. The gene IAproduces glycoprotein (sugar) A and the blood group is A. The gene IB produces glycoprotein B and the blood group is B. The gene ‘i’ is unable to produce any glycoprotein and so the person homozygous for it, has O group blood. The genes IA and IB are dominant over ‘i’. When IA and IBare present together, both are equally dominant and produce glycoproteins A and B and the blood group is AB. They are called codominant alleles.
Phenotypic (Blood group) Genotype A IAIA / IA IO B IBIB / IB IO AB IAIB O IOIO
Chromosome theory of Inheritance:
Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by Sutton and Boveri independently in 1902. The two workers found a close similarity between the transmission of hereditary characters and behaviour of chromosomes while passing from the one generation to the next through agency of gametes.
Salient features of chromosome theory:
Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs in the somatic or diploid cells.
A gamete contains only one chromosome of a type and only one of the two alleles of a character.
The paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendelian factor is restored during fertilization.
Parallelism of behaviour between chromosomes and Mendelian factors:
Both the chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors (whether dominant or recessive) are transmitted from generation to generation in an unaltered form.
A trait is represented by only one Mendelian factor inside a gamete. A gamete similarly contains a single chromosome out of a pair of homologous chromosomes due to meiosis that occurs before the formation of gametes.
An offspring contains two chromosomes of each type, which are derived from the two parents through their gametes that are involved in fusion and formation of zygote. It also contains two Mendelian factors for each character. The factors come from two different parents through their gametes.
Linkage and Recombination:
Linkage is the phenomenon, where two or more linked genes are always inherited together and their recombination frequency in a test cross progeny is less than 50%.
A pair of genes may be identified as linked, if their recombination frequency in a test cross progeny is lower than 50 percent. All the genes present on one chromosome form a linkage group and an organism possesses as many linkage groups as its haploid number of chromosomes. If the two genes are fully linked, their recombination frequency will be 0%.
Sex Determination by chromosomes:
Those chromosomes which are involved in the determination of sex of an individual are called sex chromosomes while the other chromosomes are called autosomes.
1) XX – XY type: In most insects including fruit fly Drosophila and mammals including human beings the females possess two homomorphic sex chromosomes, named XX. The males contain two heteromorphic sex chromosomes, i.e., XY. Hence the males produce two types of gametes / sperms, either with X-chromosome or with Y-chromosome, so they are called Heterogamety.
2) ZZ–ZW type: In birds and some reptiles, the males are represented as ZZ (homogamety) and females are ZW (heterogamety).
3) XX – XO type: In round worms and some insects, the females have two sex chromosomes, XX, while the males have only one sex chromosomes X. There is no second sex chromosome. Therefore, the males are designated as XO. The females are homogametic because they produce only one type of eggs. The males are heterogametic with half the male gametes carrying X-chromosome while the other half being devoid of it.
Sex determination in Humans:
Human beings have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. All the ova formed by female are similar in their chromosome type (22+X). Therefore, females are homogametic. The male gametes or sperms produced by human males are of two types, (22+X) and (22+Y). Human males are therefore, heterogametic. The two sexes produced in the progeny is 50:50 ratio.
Mutation: It is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and consequently results in changes inthe genotype and phenotype of an organism.
Gene / Point mutation: Due to change in a single base pair of DNA. Ex. Sickle cell anemia (GAGGUG).
Chromosomal mutation: Due to change in structure or number of chromosomes. Ex. Down’s syndrome.
Mutagens: The chemical and physical factors that induce mutations are known as Mutagens. Ex. UV rays.
Genetic Disorders:
Pedigree analysis: It is a system to analyse the distribution and movement of characters in the family tree.
Mendelian Disorders: These are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene. These disorders are transmitted to the offspring on the same line as the principle of inheritance. Examples : Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell anemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalesemia, etc.
Haemophilia: It is a sex linked recessive disease, which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier mother to some of themale progeny. Haemophilia is a disorder in which a vital factor for clotting of blood is lacking. So clotting of blood is abnormally delayed and it can be fatal. Bleeding can be checked by transfusion of the entire volume of blood or the clotting factor in concentrated form.
Sickle cell anemia: It is an autosome linked recessive trait. It is due to a mutant allele on chromosome 11 (autosome), that causes change of glutamine (GAG) to valine (GUG) at the sixth position of β-chain of haemoglobin. The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA HbA (normal) ; HbA HbS (carrier) and HbS HbS (diseased). The patient has sickle shaped RBCs with defective haemoglobin. They are destroyed more rapidly than normal RBCs.
Phenylketonuria: It is due to a recessive mutant allele on chromosome 12 (autosome). The affected individual lacks an enzyme (phenylalanine hydroxylase) that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result, this phenylalanine and its derivatives accumulate in the cerebrospinal fluid leading to mental degeneration (retardation) and are excreted in the urine due to its poor absorption by kidney.
Chromosomal Disorders: Due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. A change in the number of chromosomes in an organism arises due to non-disjunction of chromosomes, during gamete formation.
Aneuploidy: This arises due to loss or gain of one or more chromosomes during gamete formation. Ex. Down’s syndrome (47) and Turner’s syndrome (45).
Polyploidy: In this, the number of chromosomes is the multiple of the number of chromosomes in a single set (haploid). Accordingly, these may be haploid, diploid and polyploid.
Down’s Syndrome: It was first described by Langdon Down (1866). It is due to trisomy of 21st chromosome, arising from non-disjunction. As the maternal age increases, the instances of nondisjunction increase. When such an ovum containing two 21st chromosomes (24) is fertilized by a normal sperm (23), the zygote (47) comes to possess three copies of 21st chromosome. Symptoms: Short statured with small round mouth, palm is broad with characteristic palm crease, physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
Klinefelter’s syndrome: It arises due to non-disjunction of X-chromosomes during ova formation. When an ovum containing two X-chromosomes is fertilized by a Y-carrying sperm, XXY individual (47) appears. Symptoms: A male with underdeveloped breasts (gynaecomastia), sparse body hair, mentally retarded and sterile.
Turner’s Syndrome: It arises due to non-disjunction of X-chromosomes during ova formation. When an ovum carrying no X-chromosome is fertilized by a sperm carrying X- chromosome, a zygote with XO appears. Symptoms: A female with rudimentary ovaries, short stature, lack of secondary sexual characters, they are sterile.
IMPORTANT TERMS:
1. Heredity: - It can be defined as the transmission of characters from one generation to successive generations of living organisms.
2. Alleles:-The various forms of a gene are called alleles.
3. Phenotype: - The external / observable characteristics of an organism constitute its phenotype.
4. Genotype:-The genetic constitution of an organism is its genotype.
5. Homozygote:-It is an individual organism in which the members of a pair of alleles for a character are similar.
6. Heterozygote:-It is an individual organism in which the members of a pair of alleles of a character are different.
7. Dominant character: - The form of the character which is expressed in the F1 hybrid is called dominant character.
8. Recessive character: - The form of the character which is suppressed in the presence of the dominant character in a hybrid is called recessive character.
9. Monohybrid cross: - It is a cross between individuals of the same species, in which the inheritance of contrasting pairs of a single trait is considered.
10. Dihybrid cross: - It is a cross between two individuals of the same species, in which the inheritance of contrasting pairs of two traits is considered.
Heredity is the transfer of character from parents to their offsprings. These hereditary characters are present on the chromosomes in the form of genes. These gene combinations express characters which may be more similar to one of its two parents. The differences in characters of offspring mainly depend upon unique process of crossing over that occurs during meiosis. This is one of the main reasons of producing recombination.
Gregor Johann Mendel was born in 1822 in Heinzendorf, which was a part of Czechoslovakia. He began his genetic experiments on garden pea in 1856 in the garden at the monastery.
Selection of pea plant:-
The main reasons for adopting garden pea (Pisum sativum) for experiments by Mendel were–
Pea has many distinct contrasting characters.
Life span of pea plant is short.
Flowers show self pollination, reproductive whorls being enclosed by corolla.
It is easy to artificially cross pollinate the pea flowers. The hybrids thus produced were fertile. Working method: Mendel’s success was also due to his meticulous planning and method of work
He studied only one character at a time.
He used all available techniques to avoid cross pollination by undesirable pollen grains.
He applied mathematics and statistics to analyse the results obtained by him.
Mendel’s work and results:-
The results obtained by Mendel were studied and on their basis he proposed certain laws known as “Laws of heredity”.
These laws are discussed below:
1) Law of dominance: This law states that when two contrasting genes for a character come together in an organism, only one is expressed externally and shows visible effect. It is called dominant and the other gene of the pair which does not express and remains hidden is called recessive.
2) Law of segregation or Purity of gametes: This law states that both parental alleles (recessive and dominant) separate and are expressed phenotypically in F2 generation. When F2 generation was produced by allowing F1 hybrid to self pollinate, to find out segregation or separation it was observed that both dominant and recessive plants appeared in 3:1 ratio.
3) Law of Independent assortment: The law of independent assortment states that inheritance of two or more genes when occur at one time, their distribution in the gametes and in the progeny of subsequent generations is independent of each other.
To prove this, he did a dihybrid cross. He crossed homozygous dominant smooth and yellow seeded (YYRR) with homozygous recessive wrinkled and green seeded (yyrr) plants. The F1 hybrid was self pollinated and F2 generation was obtained with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 and genotypic ratio of 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1.
Test Cross: A cross between F1 hybrid (Aa) and its homozygous recessive parent (aa) is called Test Cross. This cross is called test cross because it helps to find out whether the given dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.
Incomplete dominance: When neither of the alleles of a character is completely dominant over the other and the F1 hybrid is intermediate between the two parents, the phenomenon is called incomplete dominance. The most common example of incomplete dominance is that of flower colour in 4’O clock plant. Homozygous red (RR) flowered variety was crossed with white (rr) flowered variety. F1 offspring had pink flowers (Rr). This is called incomplete dominance. Incomplete dominance is alsoknownto occur in snapdragon. The phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio in F2 generation in case of incomplete dominance is 1:2:1.
Multiple Allelism / Codominance: When a gene exists in more than two allelic forms, it shows the phenomenon of multiple allelism. A well known example is the inheritance of A, B and O blood groups in human being. The gene for blood group occurs in three allelic forms IA, IB and i. Any person carries two of these alleles. The gene IAproduces glycoprotein (sugar) A and the blood group is A. The gene IB produces glycoprotein B and the blood group is B. The gene ‘i’ is unable to produce any glycoprotein and so the person homozygous for it, has O group blood. The genes IA and IB are dominant over ‘i’. When IA and IBare present together, both are equally dominant and produce glycoproteins A and B and the blood group is AB. They are called codominant alleles.
Phenotypic (Blood group) Genotype A IAIA / IA IO B IBIB / IB IO AB IAIB O IOIO
Chromosome theory of Inheritance:
Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by Sutton and Boveri independently in 1902. The two workers found a close similarity between the transmission of hereditary characters and behaviour of chromosomes while passing from the one generation to the next through agency of gametes.
Salient features of chromosome theory:
Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs in the somatic or diploid cells.
A gamete contains only one chromosome of a type and only one of the two alleles of a character.
The paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendelian factor is restored during fertilization.
Parallelism of behaviour between chromosomes and Mendelian factors:
Both the chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors (whether dominant or recessive) are transmitted from generation to generation in an unaltered form.
A trait is represented by only one Mendelian factor inside a gamete. A gamete similarly contains a single chromosome out of a pair of homologous chromosomes due to meiosis that occurs before the formation of gametes.
An offspring contains two chromosomes of each type, which are derived from the two parents through their gametes that are involved in fusion and formation of zygote. It also contains two Mendelian factors for each character. The factors come from two different parents through their gametes.
Linkage and Recombination:
Linkage is the phenomenon, where two or more linked genes are always inherited together and their recombination frequency in a test cross progeny is less than 50%.
A pair of genes may be identified as linked, if their recombination frequency in a test cross progeny is lower than 50 percent. All the genes present on one chromosome form a linkage group and an organism possesses as many linkage groups as its haploid number of chromosomes. If the two genes are fully linked, their recombination frequency will be 0%.
Sex Determination by chromosomes:
Those chromosomes which are involved in the determination of sex of an individual are called sex chromosomes while the other chromosomes are called autosomes.
1) XX – XY type: In most insects including fruit fly Drosophila and mammals including human beings the females possess two homomorphic sex chromosomes, named XX. The males contain two heteromorphic sex chromosomes, i.e., XY. Hence the males produce two types of gametes / sperms, either with X-chromosome or with Y-chromosome, so they are called Heterogamety.
2) ZZ–ZW type: In birds and some reptiles, the males are represented as ZZ (homogamety) and females are ZW (heterogamety).
3) XX – XO type: In round worms and some insects, the females have two sex chromosomes, XX, while the males have only one sex chromosomes X. There is no second sex chromosome. Therefore, the males are designated as XO. The females are homogametic because they produce only one type of eggs. The males are heterogametic with half the male gametes carrying X-chromosome while the other half being devoid of it.
Sex determination in Humans:
Human beings have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. All the ova formed by female are similar in their chromosome type (22+X). Therefore, females are homogametic. The male gametes or sperms produced by human males are of two types, (22+X) and (22+Y). Human males are therefore, heterogametic. The two sexes produced in the progeny is 50:50 ratio.
Mutation: It is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and consequently results in changes inthe genotype and phenotype of an organism.
Gene / Point mutation: Due to change in a single base pair of DNA. Ex. Sickle cell anemia (GAGGUG).
Chromosomal mutation: Due to change in structure or number of chromosomes. Ex. Down’s syndrome.
Mutagens: The chemical and physical factors that induce mutations are known as Mutagens. Ex. UV rays.
Genetic Disorders:
Pedigree analysis: It is a system to analyse the distribution and movement of characters in the family tree.
Mendelian Disorders: These are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene. These disorders are transmitted to the offspring on the same line as the principle of inheritance. Examples : Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell anemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalesemia, etc.
Haemophilia: It is a sex linked recessive disease, which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier mother to some of themale progeny. Haemophilia is a disorder in which a vital factor for clotting of blood is lacking. So clotting of blood is abnormally delayed and it can be fatal. Bleeding can be checked by transfusion of the entire volume of blood or the clotting factor in concentrated form.
Sickle cell anemia: It is an autosome linked recessive trait. It is due to a mutant allele on chromosome 11 (autosome), that causes change of glutamine (GAG) to valine (GUG) at the sixth position of β-chain of haemoglobin. The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA HbA (normal) ; HbA HbS (carrier) and HbS HbS (diseased). The patient has sickle shaped RBCs with defective haemoglobin. They are destroyed more rapidly than normal RBCs.
Phenylketonuria: It is due to a recessive mutant allele on chromosome 12 (autosome). The affected individual lacks an enzyme (phenylalanine hydroxylase) that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result, this phenylalanine and its derivatives accumulate in the cerebrospinal fluid leading to mental degeneration (retardation) and are excreted in the urine due to its poor absorption by kidney.
Chromosomal Disorders: Due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. A change in the number of chromosomes in an organism arises due to non-disjunction of chromosomes, during gamete formation.
Aneuploidy: This arises due to loss or gain of one or more chromosomes during gamete formation. Ex. Down’s syndrome (47) and Turner’s syndrome (45).
Polyploidy: In this, the number of chromosomes is the multiple of the number of chromosomes in a single set (haploid). Accordingly, these may be haploid, diploid and polyploid.
Down’s Syndrome: It was first described by Langdon Down (1866). It is due to trisomy of 21st chromosome, arising from non-disjunction. As the maternal age increases, the instances of nondisjunction increase. When such an ovum containing two 21st chromosomes (24) is fertilized by a normal sperm (23), the zygote (47) comes to possess three copies of 21st chromosome. Symptoms: Short statured with small round mouth, palm is broad with characteristic palm crease, physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
Klinefelter’s syndrome: It arises due to non-disjunction of X-chromosomes during ova formation. When an ovum containing two X-chromosomes is fertilized by a Y-carrying sperm, XXY individual (47) appears. Symptoms: A male with underdeveloped breasts (gynaecomastia), sparse body hair, mentally retarded and sterile.
Turner’s Syndrome: It arises due to non-disjunction of X-chromosomes during ova formation. When an ovum carrying no X-chromosome is fertilized by a sperm carrying X- chromosome, a zygote with XO appears. Symptoms: A female with rudimentary ovaries, short stature, lack of secondary sexual characters, they are sterile.
IMPORTANT TERMS:
1. Heredity: - It can be defined as the transmission of characters from one generation to successive generations of living organisms.
2. Alleles:-The various forms of a gene are called alleles.
3. Phenotype: - The external / observable characteristics of an organism constitute its phenotype.
4. Genotype:-The genetic constitution of an organism is its genotype.
5. Homozygote:-It is an individual organism in which the members of a pair of alleles for a character are similar.
6. Heterozygote:-It is an individual organism in which the members of a pair of alleles of a character are different.
7. Dominant character: - The form of the character which is expressed in the F1 hybrid is called dominant character.
8. Recessive character: - The form of the character which is suppressed in the presence of the dominant character in a hybrid is called recessive character.
9. Monohybrid cross: - It is a cross between individuals of the same species, in which the inheritance of contrasting pairs of a single trait is considered.
10. Dihybrid cross: - It is a cross between two individuals of the same species, in which the inheritance of contrasting pairs of two traits is considered.
Saturday, January 28, 2017
Sunday, December 4, 2016
BIOLOGY TEST PAPER-1 (NEET PATTERN) WITH SOLUTION
FULL TEST PAPER -1
(BIOLOGY)
1. Which of the following is a defining
characteristic of a living organism?
a. Consciousness
b. Reproduction
c. Metabolism
d. Cellular organisation
2. Systematics deals with study of:-
a. Distribution of living organisms
b. Classification of living organisms
c. Diversity of organisms including
their inter-relationship
d. Identification of unknown organisms
3. The “five-kingdom classification”
namely - Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia was proposed by?
a. R.H.Whittaker
b. Linnaeus
c. Theophrastus
d. Aristotle
4. Specialised cells in cyanobacteria
that can fix atmospheric nitrogen are called?
a. Nitrosomes
b. Heterocysts
c. Hormogonia
d. Nostocales
5. Choose the correct statement
regarding the given diagram?
a. Given image represents a
bacteriophage
b. They are larger than bacteria and
cannot pass through bacteria-proof filters
c. It contains both DNA and RNA as
genetic material
d. It causes the mosaic disease of
tobacco
6. Which of the following are unicellular
algae, rich in proteins and are used as food supplements by space travellers?
a. Chlorella and Spirulina
b. Geledium and Gracilleria
c. Volvox and Ulothrix
d. Laminaria and Sargassum
7. In the life cycle of a plant species
a multicellular body called sporophyte developed which was not free-living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and
derived nourishment from it. This plant species is most likely to belong to the
kingdom:-
a. Algae
b. Bryophyte
c. Pteridophyte
d. Gymnosperms.
8. “Moss peat” is used as a packing
material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because?
a. It is easily available
b. It is hygroscopic
c. It reduces transpiration
d. It serves as a disinfectant
9. Which among the following is a coelenterate?
a. Sea Mouse
b. Sea Urchin
c. Sea Pen
d. Sea cucumber
10.
Which one of the following pairs of animals
comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
a. Guppies and hag fishes
b. Lampreys and eels
c. Mackerels and Rohu
d. Lampreys and hag fishes
11.
Match the given animal phylum with their
characteristic features?
|
Phyllum
|
Features
|
|
1.
Ctenophora
|
A.
Presence of
ranula
|
|
2.
Platyhelminthes
|
B.
Metameric
segments
|
|
3.
Annelida
|
C.
Bioluminescence
|
|
4.
Mollusca
|
D.
Dorsoventrally
flattened
|
a. 1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C
b. 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-A
c. 1-C 2-D 3-B 4-A
d. 1-C 2-B 3-D 4-A
12.
Label the parts of a root tip as shown in the
image below:-
a. A-Root hairs B- zone of maturation C-
zone of meristematic activity D- Root cap E- Zone of elongation
b. A- Root hairs B- Zone of maturation
C- Zone of elongation D- Root tip E- Zone of meristematic activity
c. A- Root hairs B- Zone of elongation
C-Zone of maturation D- Root tip E- Zone of meristematic activity
d. A- Root hairs B- Zone of elongation
C- Zone of meristematic activity D- Root cap E- Zone of maturation
13.
Which of the following is not a modification
of leaves?
a. Insect trapping bag of Pitcher plant
b. Pulvinus
c. Tendrils
d. Spines
14.
Casparian strips are present in the _____ of
the root?
a. Pericycle
b. Cortex
c. Epiblema
d. Endodermis
15.
Heartwood differs from sapwood in:-
a. Absence of vessels and parenchyma
b. Presence of rays and fibres
c. Being susceptible to pests and
pathogens
d. Having dead and non-conducting
elements
16.
Select the false statement regarding
Epithelial tissue?
a. The cells of epithelial tissues are
loosely packed with dense intercellular matrix.
b. It has a free surface, which faces
either a body fluid or the outside environment and thus provides a covering or
a lining for protection.
c. The lining epithelium of stomach and
intestine is columnar in nature and helps in secretion and absorbtion.
d. The function of ciliated epithelium
is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.
17.
Which one of the following is a loose
connective tissue?
a. Tendons
b. Ligaments
c. Cartilage
d. Areolar
18.
Fill up A,B,C &D in the table below:-
|
A.
____
|
Fusiform
|
Involuntary
|
|
Skeletal
muscle
|
B.________
|
C.___________
|
|
Cardiac
muscle
|
Striated
|
D.___________
|
a. A-Smooth muscle,B-Non striated,
C-voluntary, D- Voluntary
b. A- Striped muscle, B-striated,
C-involuntary, D- involuntary
c. A- Smooth muscle, B- Striped,
C-Voluntary, D- Involuntary
d. A- Smooth muscle, B- Striated, C-
Involuntary, D- Voluntary
19.
Select the false statement regarding vacuoles of a cell?
a. Size of vacuoles are smaller in a
plant cell as compared to an animal cell.
b. Vacuole is bound by a single membrane
called tonoplast.
c. The osmoregulatory organ of amoeba
i.e. contractile vacuole is a modification of vacuole.
d. Vacuole stores water, sap, excretory
product and other materials not useful for the cell.
20.
The two centrioles of a centrosome lies as
_________ to each other.
a. 180O
b. 0O
c. 45O
d. 90O
21.The most abundant protein in the
whole biosphere is?
a. Collagen
b. Insulin
c. RuBisCo
d. PepCo
22.__________ is a polymer of fructose.
a. Glycogen
b. Inulin
c. Starch
d. Chitin
23. Match the stages of Prophase-1 with
the specific changes seen in them?
|
A.Leptotene
|
1.
pairing of homologous chromosomes called synapsis
|
|
B.Zygotene
|
2. first stage of
prophase-1
|
|
C.Diplotene
|
3.
terminalisation of chiasmata
|
|
D.Diakinesis
|
4.
dissolution of synaptonemal complex
|
a. A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3
b. A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
c. A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3
d. A-2,B-3,C-4,D-2
24. The amount of DNA in Prophase 1 of
Meiosis is denoted as ‘C’. What is the amount of DNA in Anaphase 1 and G1 phase
of interphase respectively?
a. C,C/2
b. 2C,4C
c. C,2C
d. C/2,C
25. A type of transport mechanism across
cell membranes was highly selective, liable to saturate, requiring special
membrane proteins, but could not perform uphill transport and did not use ATP
as energy. These features indicate that the transport is?
a. Simple diffusion
b. Active transport
c. Passive transport
d. Facilitated transport
26. Three plant cells A,B and C were
taken for an experiment and put in hypertonic,isotonic and hypotonic media
respectively. After sometime certain changes were observed in them as shown in
the diagram below. Choose the correct option regarding the changes observed in
these cells?
a . A-No change,B-turgid,C-plasmolysed
b. A-Plasmolysed, B-No change, C- Turgid
c. A-Plasmolysed,B-Turgid, D-No change
d. A-Plasmolysed,B- Will swell after
sometime, C- Will burst after sometime
27.Which of the following is not a criteria to decide whether an
element is essential or non-essential for a plant?
a. In the absence of essential elements plants
do not complete their life cycle or set their seeds
b. Deficiency of any one essential
element cannot be met by supplying some other element.
c. The essential element must be
directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
d. The essential must be present in
plant tissues in large amounts (in excess of 10 mmole Kg –1 of dry
matter)
28. Deficiency of which of the following
elements does not lead to Chlorosis
of leaves?
a. Manganese
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Molybdenum
29.How many ATPs are required to produce
one NH3 from N2 during nitrogen fixation by the root
nodules of leguminous plants?
a. 6 ATP
b. 2 ATP
c. 4 ATP
d. 8 ATP
30. Cyclic photophosphorylation results
in the formation of?
a. ATP
b. NADPH
c. ATP and NADPH
d. ATP, NADPH and O2
31.Which one of the following is not true about the light reactions of
photosynthesis?
a. NADPH is not produced in cyclic
electrons transport in light reactions.
b. The flow of electrons from water to
NADP in non-cyclic electron transport produces one ATP
c. Reactions of the two photosystems are
needed for the reduction of NADP
d. P680 and P700 are the reaction
centres of PS I and PS II respectively reactions
32.The synthesis of one molecule of
glucose during Calvin cycle requires?
a. 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules
of NADPH2
b. 12 molecules each of ATP and NADPH2
c. 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules
of NADPH2
d. 18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules
of NADPH2
33.Glycolysis is the breakdown of
glucose to pyruvic acid. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed from one
molecule of glucose :-
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
34.Link between glycolysis, kreb’s cycle
and b-oxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and fat metabolism is?
a. Succinyl Co A
b. Acetyl Co A
c. Citric acid
d. Oxaloacetic acid
35.Which one of the following pairs, is
not correctly matched?
a. IAA – Cell wall elongation
b. Abscisic acid – Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin – Cell division
36.Statement 1-Liver
is the largest gland of the body.
Statement 2-Each lobule of liver is covered by a thin connective tissue
sheath called the Glisson’s capsule.
Statement 3-The common hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by a sphincter
called the sphincter of Boyden.
Statement 4- Duodenum is a ‘J’ shaped organ.
Statement 5-No digestion occurs in mouth.
How many of the above
statements are correct?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. All
37.The oxygen dissociation curve is
shifted to the right by an increase in ______?
a. H+ concentration
b. pCO2
c. Temperature
d. All of these
38.Emphysema, a chronic disorder is high
in cigarette smokers. In such cases the ______ of the person is/are found
damaged.
a. Trachea
b. Alveolar walls
c. Bronchioles
d. Respiratory muscles
39. Heart is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body showing symptoms of congestion
of lung – A
When the heart muscle is
suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply due to atherosclerosis – B
Acute chest pain appears
when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle – C
Deposits of calcium, fat,
cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which makes the lumen of arteries narrower – D
Heart stops beating – E
Choose appropriate terms
for A,B,C,D&E?
a. A-Heart failure B- Heart attack C-
Angina pectoris D- Atherosclerosis E-Cardiac arrest
b. A-Heart attack B-Heart failure C-
Angina pectoris D- CAD E- cardiac arrest
c. A- myocardial infarction B- cardiac
arrest C- Angina D- Atherosclerosis E- Heart Block
d. A- Heart attack B-Heart Block C-
Atherosclerosis D- CAD E- Heart failure
40. Select the pair of uricotellic
organism?
a. Aquatic amphibians and aquatic
insects
b. Reptiles and birds
c. Mammals and terrestrial amphibians
d. Bony fishes and snails
41.Given below is an Electron
microscopic structure of a myofibril. Label A, B, C, D and E?
a. A- A band , B- Z line , C- H Zone ,
D- I band , E- L-Line
b. A- Sarcomere , B- M Line , C- H Zone ,
D- A band , E- I band
c. A- Sarcomere , B- Z Line , C- H Zone , D- I band , E- A band
d. A- Sarcomere , B- Z Line , C- I Zone
, D- A band , E- H Zone
42.Yellow bone marrow, in the medullary
cavity of the diaphysis is primarily?
a. Collagen fibres, made of protein
b. Bone-forming and bone-absorbing cells
c. Fat that can be utilized for energy
d. None of these
43. Areas in the cerebral cortex that
are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function and are responsible for
complex functions like inter-sensory associations, memory and communication are
known as?
a. Corpus callosum
b. Amygdala
c. Association area
d. Hippocampus
44.Choose the false statement?
a. Photoreceptor cells are not present
in the region of blind spot.
b. Macula Lutea lies medial to the blind
spot.
c. The fovea is a thinned-out portion of
the retina where only the cones are densely packed.
d. Fovea is the point where visual
acuity is the greatest.
45.Which among the following is not a peptide hormone?
a. Thyroxine
b. Insulin
c. Glucagon
d. Pituitary hormones
46.Which of the following is an
incorrect match regarding the mode of reproduction of the concerned organism?
a. Buds- Hydra
b. Gemmules – Sponge
c. Conidia- Penicillium
d. Multiple fission – Amoeba
47.Choose the false statement regarding Strobilanthus
kunthiana (Neelakuranji)?
a. It flowers once in 12 years.
b. This plant flowered during
September-October 2006 last time.
c. It flowers once every 50-100 years.
d. Mass flowering of this flower
transformed large tracks of hilly areas in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
into blue stretches and attracted a large number of tourists.
48. A typical angiosperm anther is
___________ &____________.
a. Multilobed , Multithecous
b. Bilobed , Dithecous
c. Multilobed , Dithecous
d. Bilobed , Multithecous
49.Choose the false statement regarding
Cleistogamous flowers?
a. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured
seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
b. They have exposed anthers and stigma.
c. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous.
d. They undergo self-fertilization that
occurs within a permanently closed flower.
50.Which of the following is not a function of seeds?
a. Better adaptive to stress conditons.
b. Provides protection to the young
embryo.
c. Absorbs micronutrients for
germination.
d. Have food reserves for developing
seedling.
51. Average number of seminiferous
tubules in each testicular lobule is?
a. 1-3
b. 10-30
c. 3-6
d. 5-10
52. A- Formation of mature sperms.
B- Transformation of
spermatids into spermatozoa.
C- Release of sperms from
seminiferous tubules.
Select appropriate terms
for A,B & C?
a. A- Spermatogenesis, B-
Spermiogenesis, C- Spermiation
b. A- Spermatogenesis, B- Spermiation,
C- Spermiogenesis
c. A- Spermiogenesis, B- Spermiation, C-
Spermatogenesis
d. A- Spermiation, B-Spermiogenesis, C-
Spermatogenesis
53.Which of the following is injected to
induce delivery of a mature foetus?
a. Progesterone
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Cortisol
54. Which among them is a correct pair
of completely incurable STDs?
a. Syphillis and Gonorrhoea
b. AIDS and Chlamydiasis
c. Hepatitis – B and Syphillis
d. AIDS and Genital herpes
55. Choose the false statement regarding
the Multiload 375 IUD?
a. It is a copper releasing IUD.
b. It increases phagocytosis of sperms
within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the
fertilising capacity of sperms.
c. It is an ideal contraceptive for the
female who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
d. It is a hormone releasing IUD that makes
the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
56.Which of the following is not the
statement of “Law of Dominance”?
a. Characters are controlled by discrete
units called factors.
b. Factors occur in pairs.
c. The alleles do not show any blending
and that both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation.
d. In a dissimilar pair of factors one
member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive).
57.Klinefelter syndrome is usually
diagnosed at puberty when expected physical changes don’t occur. The most
common indications for karyotyping are hypogonadism and infertility. Frequently
individuals with Klinefelter syndrome go through life without being diagnosed.
The condition is not usually diagnosed at birth because the baby looks healthy
and normal. But it can be diagnosed prenatally by analyzing the karyotype of
cells from amniotic fluid. If this is the case, then parents have to be
informed that their child is expected to?
a. Have a shorter stature
b. Be more muscular than other kids
c. Have normal sexual function and be able to
father children
d. Have enhanced breast development after puberty
58. If father is having haemophilia, and
mother is carrier of haemophilia. What percentage of their sons will have the
disease?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
59. Chromosomal theory was
experimentally proven by?
a. Sutton and Boveri
b. Watson and Crick
c. Thomas Hunt Morgan and colleagues
d. Hugo De Vries, Tshermack and Correns
60.Which of the following best describes
the parents in a testcross?
a. One individual has the dominant phenotype and
the other has the recessive phenotype.
b. Both individuals are heterozygous.
c. Both individuals have the dominant
phenotype.
d. Both individuals have the recessive
phenotype.
61. DNA is the genetic material in
majority of the organisms because it is chemically and structurally more stable
than RNA. Which of the following features of RNA makes it less stable than DNA?
a. RNA is known to be a catalytic
molecule, hence it is reactive.
b. 2'-OH group present at every
nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group.
c. In RNA the uracil found at the place
of thymine makes it labile.
d. All of the above.
62. The triplet code of CAT in DNA is
represented as __________ in mRNA and ________in tRNA.
a. GAA, CAT
b. CAT, CAT
c. GUA, CAU
d. GTA, CAU
63. Which of the following is not an example of divergent evolution?
a. Bones of forelimb of mammals
b. Thorn and Tendrils of Bougainvillea
and Cucurbita
c. Wings of butterfly and of birds
d. Vertebrate hearts or brains
64.
Which among the following gas was not
used in Miller’s experiment?
a. NH4
b. NH3
c. CH4
d. H2
65. Obesity, Cancer, Malaria, Diabetes,
Amoebiasis, Leprosy, Tuberculosis, Hypertension, Blindness, Ascariasis, AIDS,
Cirrhosis. How many among the given diseases are non-infectious in nature?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 7
66.Which of the following is not a clinical feature of pneumonia?
a. Fever with chills
b. Cough and chest pain
c. Cyanosis of lips and finger tips
d. Diarrhoea and dysentery
67.Label A,B,C&D properly in the
structure of antibody.
a. A- antigen binding site, B- light
chain, C- heavy chain, D- carboxy terminal
b. A- NH2 binding site, B-
light chain, C- heavy chain , D- H2L2
c. A- Antigen binding site, B- heavy
chain , C- light chain , D- antibody binding site
d. A- H2L2 , B- light chain, C- heavy
chain, D-disulfide bond
68. Match the following?
|
A.
Heroin
|
1.
Erythroxylum
coca
|
|
B.
Marijuana
|
2.
Hallucinogenic
|
|
C.
Cocaine
|
3.
Smack
|
|
D.
Datura
|
4.
Cannabis sativa
|
a. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
b. A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
c. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
d. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-2
69."Jaya" and
"Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of?
a. Bajra
b. Maize
c. Rice
d. Wheat
70. “Parbhani Kranti” is associated with
modification of?
a. Bhindi
b. Wheat
c. Chilli
d. Cauli flower
71. Most common species of honey bee
used in Apiculture is?
a. Apis dorsata
b. Apis indica
c. Apis florea
d. Melipona irridipennis
72. Cyclosporine A, that is used as an
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients is produced by the fungus
__________?
a. Trichoderma polyspermum
b. Monascus purpureus
c. Saccharomyces cerevesiae
d. Aspergillus niger
73. A sewage treatment process in which
a part of decomposer bacteria present in the wastes is recycled into the
starting of the process is called
a. Primary treatment
b. Activated sludge treatment
c. Cyclic treatment
d. Tertiary treatment
74.Which one of the following is a wrong
matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are
correct?
a. Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
b. Aspergillus niger - citric acid
c. Yeast - statins
d. Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid
75. Advancement in genetic engineering
has been possible due to the discovery of?
a. Oncogenes
b. Transposons
c. Restriction endonuclease
d. Exonucleases
76. DNA segment of an organism was
subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis and then stained by ethidium bromide
to see under UV light, what colour would you expect the DNA to be seen as?
a. Red
b. Orange
c. Blue
d. Black
77.Select the false statement regarding
Biolistics / Gene gun?
a. It is suitable for plant cells
b. The cells are bombarded with high
velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA
c. This method uses 'disarmed pathogen' vectors,
which when allowed to infect the cell, transfer the recombinant DNA into the
host cells.
d. Recombinant DNA is directly injected
into the nucleus of the cell.
78. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps
governed by temperature, they are in order of
a. Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
b. Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
c. Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
d. Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
79.The protein products of the following
Bt toxin genes cry IA c and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling
a. Bollworm
b. Roundworm
c. Moth
d. Fruit fly
80.What is the major problem in use of
insulin extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs?
a. It causes allergy and
hypersensitivity reactions in some individuals
b. Higher doses are required
c. Gets digested by digestive juices
d. Not absorbed properly into the
circulation
81. Milk from the first transgenic cow, Rosie has
more _________ than the milk produced by the natural cow.
a. Carbohydrates
b. Unsaturated fat
c. Proteins
d. All of the above
82. Such organisms which can tolerate and thrive
in a wide range of temperatures are known as?
a. Eurythermal
b. Holothermal
c. Stenothermal
d. Cryothermal
83. Some snails and fishes go into a
summer sleep to avoid problems of heat and dessication. This phenomenon is
known as?
a. Hibernation
b. Conformation
c. Aestivation
d. Regulation
84. Biological control methods adopted
in agricultural pest control are based on which principle of population
interaction?
a. Mutualism
b. Parasitism
c. Commensalism
d. Predation
85. Which of the following equation
gives the correct relationship between gross primary productivity (GPP) , net
primary productivity (NPP) and respiratory loses (R )?
a. NPP - R= GPP
b. GPP – R = NPP
c. GPP+ NPP = R
d. None of the above
86. Select the true statement regarding Decomposition?
a. It is largely an oxygen-requiring
process.
b. It involves break down complex inorganic
matter into organic substances.
c. Detritivores break down detritus into
smaller particles by the process of leaching.
d. Decomposition rate is faster if
detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
87. For majority of the species,
regardless of their taxa or the region in which they live, the value of
regression coefficient (Z) lies in the range of?
a. 3-4
b. 0.1-0.2
c. 1.5-3.5
d. 30-40
88. The introduction of Nile perch into
Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction of an
ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish in the
lake. This is an example of which type of biodiversity loss?
a. Alien species invasion
b. Habitat loss
c. Over exploitation
d. Co extinction
89. In the given diagram of
Electrostatic precipitator. Which of the following option correctly represent
A,B,C,D,E and F ?
90. Pollutants from man’s activities
like effluents from the industries and homes can radically accelerate the aging
process of lakes. This phenomenon is known as?
a. Radical destruction
b. Accelerated Eutropication
c. Cultural Eutropication
d. Both “b” and “c” .
ANSWER SHEET- FTP-1(BRIEF EXPLANATION)
1.
D.
Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature of life forms. NCERT
11- P-4&5.
2.
C.
Systematics deals with study of different kinds of organisms and their
diversities, and also the relationships among them. NCERT 11 -P-8.
3.
A.
R.H.Whittaker NCERT 11-P-17
4.
B.
Heterocysts – NCERT 11-P-19
5.
D.
Tobacco mosaic virus- size smaller than bacteria- no virus has both DNA and RNA
as genetic material. NCERT 11-P-26
6.
A.
Chlorella and Spirulina- NCERT 11-P-32
7.
B.
Bryophytes. In Bryophytes Zygotes do not undergo reduction division
immediately. They produce a multicellular body called a sporophyte. The
sporophyte is not free-living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte
and derives nourishment from it. Some cells of the sporophyte undergo reduction
division (meiosis) to produce haploid spores.
These spores germinate to produce gametophytes. NCERT-11-P-35
8.
B.
hygroscopic-capacity to hold water. NCERT-11-P-35
9.
C.
Sea pen- Pennatula belongs to coelenterate. NCERT-11-P-50
10. D. Lamprey (Petromyzon) and Hagfishes
(Myxine) NCERT-11-P-56
11. C. Read specific features of given
phylum- NCERT- 11- Chap-4
12. D. NCERT-11-P-67
13. B. Pulvinus -In leguminous plants the
leafbase is swollen. NCERT-11-P-70
14. D. Endodermis- NCERT-11-P-91
15. D. NCERT -11-P-96
16. A. The epithelial cells are compactly
packed with little intercellular matrix. NCERT-11-P-101
17. D. areolar tissue and adipose tissue
are loose connective tissue. NCERT-11-P-103
18. C. NCERT-11- P-104/105
19. A. In plant cells the vacuoles can
occupy up to 90 per cent of the volume of the cell. NCERT-11-P-134
20. D. the centrioles in a centrosome lie
perpendicular to each other. NCERT-11-P-137
21. C. Ribulose bisphosphate
Carboxylase-Oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the most abundant protein in the whole of
the biosphere. NCERT-11-P-148
22. B. inulin is a polymer of
fructose-NCERT-11-P-148
23. A. NCERT-11-P-168
24. A. Amount of DNA doubles in S
phase-hence it is half in G1 phase and remains constant in all phases of
Meiosis 1,but again becomes half at the end of Meiosis 1.
25. D. Table 11.1 NCERT -11-P-178
26. B. figure 11.5 NCERT-11-P-182
27. D. Criteria for essentiality-
NCERT-11-P-195
28. C. Copper- NCERT-11-P-199
29. D. 8 ATP – NCERT-11-P-204
30. A. ATP- NCERT-11-P-213
31. D. In PS I the reaction centre
chlorophyll a has an absorption peak
at 700 nm, hence is called P700, while in PS II it has absorption maxima at 680
nm, and is called P680. NCERT-11-P-211
32. D. NCERT-11-P-218
33. B. Acetyl Co-A
34. B
35. C
36. A .2- Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
37. D. all of these – NCERT-11-P-274
38. B. Alveolar walls – NCERT-11-P-275
39. A. NCERT-11-P-288
40. B. NCERT- 11- P-290
41. C. Figure 20.2 NCERT-11-P-305
42. C
43. C. Association area- NCERT-11-P-321
44. B. At the posterior pole of the eye
lateral to the blind spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called macula
lutea with a central pit called the fovea. NCERT-11-P-324
45. A. NCERT-11-P-338
46. D. Amoeba reproduces by binary
fission.
47. C. NCERT-12-P-9
48. B. NCERT-12-P-21
49. B. NCERT-12-P-28
50. C. NCERT-12-P-37,38
51. A. NCERT-12-P-43- each lobule
contains 1-3 seminiferous tubules.
52. A. NCERT-12-P-47
53. B. oxytocin drip- NCERT- 12- P-54
54. D. NCERT-12-P-63- AIDS,Hepatitis- B,
Genital Herpes are not completely curable.
55. D. NCERT-12-P-60
56. C.NCERT-12-P-75
57. D. Enhanced breast size is a symptom
of Klinifelter’s syndrome
58. B. solve as sex linked recessive
trait
59. C. NCERT- 12- P-83
60. A. Test cross- heterozygous recessive
F1 (Dominant phenotype) crossed with its pure recessive parent (Recessive
phenotype).
61. D. NCERT- 12-P-97,103
62. C – Follow the base pairing rules
63. C- NCERT-12-P-130
64. A. NCERT-12-127
65. B. 6 – Obesity, cancer, diabetes,
hypertension, blindness, cirrhosis are non-infectious/non-communicable diseases
66. D. diarrhoea and dysentery is not
seen in pneumonia
67. A. NCERT-12-P-151- figure 8.4
68. A. NCERT-12-P 158,159
69. C. Rice – NCERT-12- P-173
70. A. Bhindi- NCERT-12- P- 174
71. B. Apis indica – NCERT-12-P-169
72. A .Trichoderma polyspermum –
NCERT-12-P-183
73. B. NCERT-12-P-184
74. A.
75. C. NCERT-12-P-194-195
76. B. Orange. NCERT-12-P-198
77. D. NCERT-12-P-201
78. C. NCERT-12-P-202
79. A. Bollworm- NCERT-12-P-209
80. A-NCERT-12-P-211
81. C. Proteins- NCERT-12-P-213
82. A. Eurythermal- NCERT-12-P-222
83. C. NCERT-12-P-225
84. D. Predation- NCERT-12-P-233
85. B. NCERT-12-P- 243
86. A. NCERT-12-P-243,244
87. B. NCERT-12-P-262
88. A. NCERT-12-P-265
89. 3. NCERT -12- P- 271- Figure 16.1
90. D. NCERT -12- P-277
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